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Monday, October 02, 2006

Was Foley a pervert or not?

Thomas Lifson in The American Thinker brings us this tidbit:

They keep stridently referring to Foley as a “pervert.” While I certainly agree that he is a pervert, I am quite sure I don’t understand why they do. Is it because he is attracted to young men? If that is the case, why is he a pervert, when all normal heterosexual men are just as attracted to young female flesh? Can I get a witness?

Pedophilia specifically revolves around fantasies, urges, or sexual behaviors involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child. Therefore, we can take the charge of pedophilia right off the table.

Read the whole thing

“Preliminary reports” especially when they come from the Dems or the MSM, seem to always be wrong.

Comments

Avatar for Chief RZ

Well, yes, in the true use of the word:  deviant= +/- 2 standard deviations from the mean.  Homosexuals constitute about 3% of the population, hence, they are deviants.

Chief RZ on October 4, 2006 at 02:56 pm
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